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Author Topic: Wisdom or Foolishness?  (Read 523 times)
Bruce Blagg
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« on: November 11, 2008, 03:50:06 PM »

I came across this passage of scripture written by St. Paul to the Corinthians in 1 Corinthians 1.

"As the Scriptures say, 'I will destroy the wisdom of the wise and discard the intelligence of the intelligent.'  So where does this leave the philosophers, the scholars, and the world?s brilliant debaters? God has made the wisdom of this world look foolish.  Since God in his wisdom saw to it that the world would never know him through human wisdom, he has used our foolish preaching to save those who believe.  It is foolish to the Jews, who ask for signs from heaven. And it is foolish to the Greeks, who seek human wisdom.  So when we preach that Christ was crucified, the Jews are offended and the Gentiles say it?s all nonsense."

Paul in writing to a culture that held in highest esteem philosophy, oration, and logic states that God, in his wisdom, saw to it that the world would never know him through human wisdom.

Alister McGrath, in commenting on this passage, wrote, "This is not a plea to intellectual suicide, but a plea to encounter God as He has made himself revealed to us."  (I quote him because I believe that his credentials are ones that are respectable.  He holds a DPhil in Molecular Biophysics and a Doctor of Divinity, both from Oxford.  He is currently a full professor at Oxford.  He is also a former atheist.  His work in molecular biophysics has won him honors worldwide as well as his writings in Theology.)

If we desire to know if there is a God or not, or if we believe there is a God and desire to know Him better, then shouldn't we approach the search as He has revealed himself and not as we desire to seek for Him?  What does it mean to us "that the world would never know him through human wisdom"?  And how was Paul affective in proclaiming his "gospel" if the "gospel" he was proclaiming goes contrary to everything the what the culture values?

Is there anything in this that is compelling or does it just raise more questions?

By the way, hi from Frankfurt Germany.  If all this doesn't make sense, it is because I've gone from 8:00 Monday morning till now (almost 4:00 PM on Tuesday) with little or no sleep.  Serious jet lag!  But I've been thinking about what Paul was trying to say and wondering what the implications were for us.

Any comments?   
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Anxiety
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« Reply #1 on: November 11, 2008, 08:39:47 PM »

Paul nearly plagiarized the entirety of Alcibiades I and The Republic with this.  Moreover, the concept that "God is love" comes straight from The Symposium.

Dreadfully unoriginal.

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What does it mean to us "that the world would never know him through human wisdom"?

It means it's a conveniently unfalsifiable claim meant to support the notion of faith rather than investigation.
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Paul
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« Reply #2 on: November 11, 2008, 11:09:18 PM »

If we desire to know if there is a God or not, or if we believe there is a God and desire to know Him better, then shouldn't we approach the search as He has revealed himself and not as we desire to seek for Him?  What does it mean to us "that the world would never know him through human wisdom"?  And how was Paul affective in proclaiming his "gospel" if the "gospel" he was proclaiming goes contrary to everything the what the culture values?

The verse that Paul was quoting is Isaiah 29:14. In this verse, Isaiah is describing how God has dimmed the visionaries and the prophets.
And so the Lord says,
      ?These people say they are mine.
   They honor me with their lips,
      but their hearts are far from me.
   And their worship of me
      is nothing but man-made rules learned by rote


Interesting verse, as while it notes how the Jews were at the time of Isaiah, it also would denote how the church of Jesus has become today.


If we desire to know if there is a God or not, or if we believe there is a God and desire to know Him better, then shouldn't we approach the search as He has revealed himself and not as we desire to seek for Him? 

While all the arts you defined are of the intellectual arena, they are all part of how God has "revealed himself" to others. The problem is what does it mean "revealed himself"?  Every religion, every cult, every philosophy has noted that their version of enlightenment was God revealing himself to them.
Yet, by seeking God through as many different avenues, we can come closer to a realization that brings the world into a more unified understanding. It is because of our desire to try and "define" God that many continue to seek God.

What does it mean to us "that the world would never know him through human wisdom"?

It seems that the original  verse was about the haughtiness of the religious leaders who at the time were leading their congregations by stating that they knew what God meant and that the common folks were incapable of understanding the bible.   God is stating through the prophet that It is too incredibly complicated that It may transcend the universe and other dimensions.  Therefore, we in our own understanding of physics and the universe may not be able to comprehend affects that we have never experienced.  Acceptance of ALL thoughts and revealment should be used to help mankind get a better perspective.

And how was Paul affective in proclaiming his "gospel" if the "gospel" he was proclaiming goes contrary to everything the what the culture values?


Because he was proclaiming that the values of that culture had been fulfilled and that a new value more relevant to the people at the time.



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Bruce Blagg
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« Reply #3 on: November 12, 2008, 08:46:16 AM »

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Paul nearly plagiarized the entirety of Alcibiades I and The Republic with this.

OK, can you help me with this?  I am familiar with both works, but do not see the "plagiarized"  If anything I see Alcibiades I as the counter thesis of what Paul is saying.  Socrates is making the case to Alcibiades that his lack of human wisdom will cause his downfall and that he needs Socrates to teach him in order to succeed.  I do not see any reference to "revealed knowledge", or to "wisdom" being of divine origin or inspiration.

Can you explain how you related these two to the scriptures I gave in the original posting?  I would like to then discuss our perceptions.

Thanks for engaging in this subject.

(and yes I am posting more even though I am in Europe ... the assignment I'm on does not require full days of participation ... so being alone I have more time to post ...)
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Bruce Blagg
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« Reply #4 on: November 12, 2008, 09:49:25 AM »

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Interesting verse, as while it notes how the Jews were at the time of Isaiah, it also would denote how the church of Jesus has become today.

Actually I would take this a step further and say this represents not only how religion works, but it is how any attempt to "know God" through the wisdom of human reasoning ALONE (please note this word for it is important to my meaning) can be portrayed.

When we make our understanding and reasoning a precursor to acceptance and relationship are we not superseding his revelation with our reasoning?

 
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The problem is what does it mean "revealed himself"?

Paul was very specific.  It means the "Cross of Jesus Christ" as an historical event.  We can decide for ourselves whether Paul was right or wrong, but even if this was "one" of the ways and not "the" way, wouldn't it still warrant our approaching God through this revelation?

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Every religion, every cult, every philosophy has noted that their version of enlightenment was God revealing himself to them.

Other than Judaism and Christianity I am not aware of this.  Buddhism does not claim divine revelation, but of human attainment of divine enlightenment.  Islam in the Koran claim a divine revelation of will but not of person or being.  Hinduism claims no divine revelation, but instead works from the concept of propitiation.  These are my impression.  What are the ones you have which derives the above comment?

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Acceptance of ALL thoughts and revealment should be used to help mankind get a better perspective.

I know that it is dangerous to ask this question of you, Paul   Smiley  But you capitalized ALL.  Are all thoughts and all revealments equal or of equal benefit/use?  While may be allowed to have any thought I want about you I do not know that any thought would be as equally valid or beneficial in my experiencing who you really are.  How does ALL work?

Lastly,

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Because he was proclaiming that the values of that culture had been fulfilled and that a new value more relevant to the people at the time.

How does calling their most honored methods of reasoning "foolishness" mean that their values were fulfilled?  I got the impression from this passage that Paul was arguing that their approach was futile not fulfilled.  How did you read this?

(... I have to run now ... client wants me back in the meeting ...  Smiley )
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Anxiety
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« Reply #5 on: November 12, 2008, 01:32:49 PM »


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Can you explain how you related these two to the scriptures I gave in the original posting?  I would like to then discuss our perceptions.

True wisdom, Socrates finds, is knowing what you do not know.  He is making the ultimate case against narcissism and know-it-all-ism.  When Paul asserts that we cannot know something, he is in fact illustrating this form of wisdom.
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Bruce Blagg
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« Reply #6 on: November 12, 2008, 03:23:32 PM »

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When Paul asserts that we cannot know something, he is in fact illustrating this form of wisdom.

I find the assertion that Paul's statement that we can not know God through human wisdom as a restatement of Socrates wisdom of knowing what you do not know interesting.

Paul's assertion, I believe, is that True Wisdom is "revealed wisdom" and is not based on any human action of either knowing or not knowing.  Paul wrote

"Christ is the power of God and the wisdom of God." - 1 Corinthians 1:24

"God has united you with Christ Jesus. For our benefit God made him to be wisdom itself." - 1 Corinthians 1:30

"When we tell you these things, we do not use words that come from human wisdom. Instead, we speak words given to us by the Spirit, using the Spirit?s words to explain spiritual truths." - 1 Corinthians 2:13

"He [God] has showered his kindness on us, along with all wisdom and understanding." - Ephesians 1:8

"In him [Christ] lie hidden all the treasures of wisdom and knowledge." - Colossians 2:3

These are only a few of the many examples in Paul's writings.  He consistently insisted that wisdom came from God and was a revelation of God's  I think Socrates would have found this unacceptable.  Especially since the reason he told Alcibiades that it was wisdom for him to realize what he did not know was so he could bind Alcibiades to himself by convincing him that he needed Socrates' wisdom to guide him.  This is still human wisdom and not revealed or inspired wisdom.

What do you think?  Do you still believe Paul was saying the same thing?  Why or why not?
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Paul
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« Reply #7 on: November 12, 2008, 09:15:33 PM »

When we make our understanding and reasoning a precursor to acceptance and relationship are we not superseding his revelation with our reasoning?

I don't believe so, for when Adam was created, it was for the purpose to be like God.  Which then would logically assume that reason and understanding would be a minimal part of the experience that we would have with a relationship with God.  Then there is the Holy Spirit which in the old testament was a separate part of God that delivered messages and influenced humans.  We are then instructed by Jesus that the Holy Spirit was given the task of "helping" humans along the path of knowledge of God.  While God may reveal himself to us in various forms and manners, the revealing is then put through the filters of both the Holy Spirit and human reasoning as planned and operated from the origin of Adam.

Since I believe in the theory of positive, negative and neutrality in God, then my understanding and reasoning is definitively a valid interpretation of God.
When an aetheist states there is No God, they are correct, for God in the negative form has been "revealed" to them.  A Christian would have an interpretation of the positive aspect and as you note, Buddhism would be the grey area between the two.


 
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The problem is what does it mean "revealed himself"?

Quote

Paul was very specific.  It means the "Cross of Jesus Christ" as an historical event.  We can decide for ourselves whether Paul was right or wrong, but even if this was "one" of the ways and not "the" way, wouldn't it still warrant our approaching God through this revelation?

I agree with your analysis of who Paul was talking about.  However your statement on the revealing was: "This is not a plea to intellectual suicide, but a plea to encounter God as He has made himself revealed to us."  If we desire to know if there is a God or not, or if we believe there is a God and desire to know Him better, then shouldn't we approach the search as He has revealed himself and not as we desire to seek for Him?
I answered this question instead.   police Whoops!  we had a communication error. police  

but even if this was "one" of the ways and not "the" way, wouldn't it still warrant our approaching God through this revelation?

Yes.  The more ways that we can approach God through revelations, the clearer we can see as Paul would say "a cloudy mirror".


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Every religion, every cult, every philosophy has noted that their version of enlightenment was God revealing himself to them.

Quote

Other than Judaism and Christianity I am not aware of this.  Buddhism does not claim divine revelation, but of human attainment of divine enlightenment.  Islam in the Koran claim a divine revelation of will but not of person or being.  Hinduism claims no divine revelation, but instead works from the concept of propitiation.  These are my impression.  What are the ones you have which derives the above comment?

Clarification of thought:  Agree on Judaism and Christianity, Buddhism's design of divine enlightenment by humans is how God (as divine enlightenment) can be related to; Hinduism's appeasement of the many gods up to the central diety is another way of God revealing himself through different methods.

Each view is a different perspective (which would be the result of a universal being's revealing to their societal influence and reasoning) which lends credence to the verse that man's wisdom (a single religious belief's viewpoint) would be unable to define God.


Quote
Acceptance of ALL thoughts and revealment should be used to help mankind get a better perspective.

Quote
I know that it is dangerous to ask this question of you, Paul   Smiley  But you capitalized ALL.  Are all thoughts and all revealments equal or of equal benefit/use?  While may be allowed to have any thought I want about you I do not know that any thought would be as equally valid or beneficial in my experiencing who you really are.  How does ALL work?

"Come into my house, said the spider to the fly . .  ."   Shocked

I have seriously thought about this one . . . .  Originally I would have said No, of course the lunatics and cult leaders' "revealment" are not of equal value. But then, this little voice kept creeping into my thoughts.  If they are not ALL equal, then am I not guilty of what Isaiah originally said?  Who am I to determine what is less important or more . . . surely, I am not that wise or egotistical.  Wink
It is the ACCEPTANCE of  the different thoughts and revealments that help us make a clearer image of what the subject matter is.  In your example, all the thoughts that you have, good, bad, ugly or indifferent help you determine and experience who I really am.  There is a saying that you really don't know someone until you live with them.  Reason -  you get to experience all the different aspects of that person in many different manners and situations.
When you accept all of the different experiences and revealments you can determine (reason and understanding) who that person really is.



Lastly,

Quote
Because he was proclaiming that the values of that culture had been fulfilled and that a new value more relevant to the people at the time.

Quote
How does calling their most honored methods of reasoning "foolishness" mean that their values were fulfilled?  I got the impression from this passage that Paul was arguing that their approach was futile not fulfilled.  How did you read this?

(... I have to run now ... client wants me back in the meeting ...  Smiley )

Reading the new thought by N T Wright in the latest book "The Challenge of Jesus" and I am about 1/2 way through right now, the theory as I understand it at this point in his debate is that Jesus and his disciples were confident that the conclusion of the Old Testament and the exile of Israel had come to an end and with Jesus's teaching the Kingdom of God had arrived on earth during his lifetime. Those who still believed that the Kingdom was in the future because of their "methods" were in error. Paul having seeminly come to the same conclusion of the Kingdom being created in his present time was arguing that a "fresh" look at the theology was needed, that Jesus's had indeed prophesized correctly and that the values inherent in Judaism were fulfilled.  Except, that those who thought that they "knew" denoting the "wise ones" (clerics, rabbis, Pharisees, etc.) were in error but with reasoning and understanding of Jesus and his teachings that God would be revealed to them in a different and wonderful way which would validate that their traditions and prophecies had all bee fulfilled, but anyone who could not see this "new revealment"  would be left behind in the New Kingdom.  

[/quote]
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Paul
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« Reply #8 on: November 15, 2008, 09:07:17 AM »

These are only a few of the many examples in Paul's writings.  He consistently insisted that wisdom came from God and was a revelation of God's  I think Socrates would have found this unacceptable.  Especially since the reason he told Alcibiades that it was wisdom for him to realize what he did not know was so he could bind Alcibiades to himself by convincing him that he needed Socrates' wisdom to guide him.  This is still human wisdom and not revealed or inspired wisdom.

What do you think?  Do you still believe Paul was saying the same thing?  Why or why not?

Your explanation of why Socrates' thoughts would have been in conflict also acknowledge that Anxiety's thoughts may be valid.

For as you note, the ultimate thought was for Alcibiades to "bind himself" to Socrates' wisdom.  Is not Paul also asking Christians to "bind themselves" to God's wisdom?

I find that there is a fine line between human wisdom- which to me is all about experience and gaining knowldege, and inspired wisdom. Inspired wisdom can be an "aha" moment, but is not the "aha" based on a human experience or knowledge.  As humans, we are only able to recognize and analyze in human thoughts.  Example would be as Roy stated, that the brain is hardwired to recognize human forms out of a random drawing of lines and dots. So, we "see" pictures of Jesus and Mary in bread, windows stains, rock formations, shadows in a crater, etc. 
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Anxiety
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« Reply #9 on: November 15, 2008, 06:20:20 PM »

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These are only a few of the many examples in Paul's writings.  He consistently insisted that wisdom came from God and was a revelation of God's  I think Socrates would have found this unacceptable.  Especially since the reason he told Alcibiades that it was wisdom for him to realize what he did not know was so he could bind Alcibiades to himself by convincing him that he needed Socrates' wisdom to guide him.  This is still human wisdom and not revealed or inspired wisdom.

I think this had more to do with the elements of the play rather than the actual real dialogue.  Socrates, as well as most people at the time, absolutely adored Alcibiades and him to be their lover.

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What do you think?  Do you still believe Paul was saying the same thing?  Why or why not?

I'd say it's the same in the sense that the Under Pressure by Queen is the same as Ice Ice Baby by Vanilla Ice.  Paul shapes Plato to fit whatever he'd like him to fit.  If you consider the theory of forms that Plato develops later in the Parmenides then it is consistent with the notion of uncovering already existing knowledge/wisdom.

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